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CRISC Dumps - Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Exam Questions [2025]
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The CRISC exam is a comprehensive examination that tests the knowledge and skills of professionals in the field of risk management and information systems control. CRISC exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that are based on the CRISC job practice areas. Candidates have four hours to complete the exam, and they must score at least 450 out of 800 to pass the exam.
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) exam is a globally recognized certification designed for IT professionals who are responsible for managing and identifying enterprise IT risk. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification focuses on assessing, mitigating, and managing risks associated with IT systems and infrastructure. ISACA CRISC Certification is considered a leading credential for professionals who are looking to advance their careers in risk management and IT governance.
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The Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) certification is the way to go in the modern ISACA era. Success in the ISACA CRISC exam of this certification plays an essential role in an individual's future growth. Nowadays, almost every tech aspirant is taking the test to get ISACA CRISC Certification and find well-paying jobs or promotions. But the main issue that most of the candidates face is not finding updated ISACA CRISC practice questions to prepare successfully for the ISACA CRISC certification exam in a short time.
ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Sample Questions (Q319-Q324):
NEW QUESTION # 319
A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:
- A. a business recovery plan.
- B. the providers financial statements.
- C. provision for source code escrow.
- D. ownership of responsibilities.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a contract associated with a cloud service
provider must include ownership of responsibilities, as this defines the roles and obligations of both the
cloudprovider and the customer in relation to the cloud services. The contract should specify who is
responsible for:
Service delivery and performance
Data security and privacy
Compliance with regulations and standards
Incident management and reporting
Business continuity and disaster recovery
Change management and configuration control
Intellectual property rights and licensing
Termination and data egress
The contract should also include service level agreements (SLAs) that measure and monitor the quality and
availability of the cloud services, as well as remedies and penalties for non-compliance. The contract should
also address pricing and payment terms, dispute resolution mechanisms, and liability and indemnification
clauses.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk
Response Options, pp. 173-1741
NEW QUESTION # 320
Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?
- A. Risk register
- B. Risk management framework
- C. Recent security incidents reported by competitors
- D. Global security standards
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 321
Which of the following is BEST measured by key control indicators (KCIs)?
- A. Comprehensiveness of risk assessment procedures.
- B. Historical trends of the organizational risk profile.
- C. Cost efficiency of risk treatment plan projects.
- D. Effectiveness of organizational defense in depth.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Key control indicators measure the operational effectiveness of specific controls, such as those contributing to defense-in-depth strategies. Monitoring these indicators ensures controls are functioning as intended, aligning with Control Effectiveness Monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 322
Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?
- A. The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)
- B. Enterprise risk management and business process owners
- C. Executive management and the board of directors
- D. Audit and compliance management
Answer: C
Explanation:
The stakeholders who are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite are the
executive management and the board of directors, because they are the ones who set thestrategic direction and
objectives of the enterprise, and who define the acceptable level of risk exposure and tolerance for achieving
those objectives. The other options are not the primary stakeholders, because:
Option A: Audit and compliance management are responsible for providing assurance and oversight on the
effectiveness of the risk management process and the compliance with internal and external requirements, but
they do not determine the enterprise IT risk appetite.
Option B: The CIO and the CFO are responsible for managing the IT resources and the financial resources of
the enterprise, respectively, but they do not determine the enterprise IT risk appetite.
Option C: Enterprise risk management and business process owners are responsible for identifying, assessing,
and responding to the risks that affect their domains, but they do not determine the enterprise IT risk
appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 83.
NEW QUESTION # 323
When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP), which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?
- A. BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.
- B. BCP testing is not in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP).
- C. Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.
- D. Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 324
......
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